Does Christ fulfill the law or end it?
Romans 10:4 - For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.
How can Christ be the end of the law if Jesus says "... one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled."?
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How can this be misinterpreted to be a contradiction, its redicilous? Matthew 5:18 is Jesus saying that nothing will pass from the law untill it be fulfilled, and it was fulfilled after his death and ressurection because he is the fulfillment of the law(Matthew 5:17). Romans 10:4 is a letter by Paul to the believers AFTER THE RESSURRECTION,when it was fulfilled. No Contradiction.
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fulfill: Mirram Webster definition:
1 archaic : to make full : fill
2 a: to put into effect : execute b: to meet the requirements of (a business order) c: to bring to an end d: to measure up to : satisfy
3 a: to convert into reality b: to develop the full potentialities of
See 2 C & D above? "To bring to an end" and 2 D "satisfy"
Given that definition of "fulfill" then how are the two verses in conflict? jesus obviously satisfied and brought an end with his sacrifice.